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acadianl79 · 11 March 2010, 11:00 AM

Here's a quick question...

Most watches with a roman dial have the IIII symbol at the 4 o'clock position.

I always thought that the number 4 was represented by the roman symbol IV.

Then why the use the symbol IIII ?

A lot of Patek watches have the IIII symbol
some Patek have the IV symbol ????

Is there a standard for roman numbers ?

DRAWTOOL · 11 March 2010, 11:04 AM

Once more...

sakuraba · 11 March 2010, 11:07 AM

The theory is that IIII is more balanced/ symmetrical than IV.

DarkHorse · 11 March 2010, 11:07 AM

Most clocks and watches feature a 4 as IIII, it is a tradition and there are many theories as to why this is. A lot of people cite the symmetry aspect. But yes, technically it should be IV.

Step Down · 11 March 2010, 11:18 AM

I think IIII is supposed to balance the dial. the IIII is 180 degrees removed from VIII on the other side of the dial. There is also some historical issue where IV was not used in ancient times but I don't know the story on that.

By the way I only own watches with arabic dials. Roman dials don't appeal to me at all. I wonder if others have a single preference Roman or Arabic or do you mix them in your collection?

regards

steppy

DarkHorse · 11 March 2010, 11:35 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Step Down

By the way I only own watches with arabic dials. Roman dials don't appeal to me at all. I wonder if others have a single preference Roman or Arabic or do you mix them in your collection?

I'm the exact opposite, I much prefer Roman to Arabic - I have Arabic on my TAG Heuer and I have Roman on my Datejust, I think the DJ looks a thousand times better.

JohnBoy · 11 March 2010, 01:21 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by DarkHorse

I'm the exact opposite, I much prefer Roman to Arabic - I have Arabic on my TAG Heuer and I have Roman on my Datejust, I think the DJ looks a thousand times better.

Agree! Thats the way I'm going! Roman is classy on the DJ!!

11 March 2010, 11:00 AM	#1
acadianl79 Member Join Date: May 2009 Location: Canada Watch: Rolex Deep sea Posts: 238	Roman dial numbers ????? Here's a quick question... Most watches with a roman dial have the IIII symbol at the 4 o'clock position. I always thought that the number 4 was represented by the roman symbol IV. Then why the use the symbol IIII ? A lot of Patek watches have the IIII symbol some Patek have the IV symbol ???? Is there a standard for roman numbers ?

11 March 2010, 11:07 AM	#3
sakuraba "TRF" Member Join Date: May 2009 Real Name: Jib Location: SJ, California Watch: sun dial Posts: 8,189	The theory is that IIII is more balanced/ symmetrical than IV. __________________ F 14000 AirKing black F 16710 GMT Pepsi F 16570 Explorer II white T 16600 SD D 16610 LV "fine quality is remembered long after the pain of spending money" -Steve Mulholland

11 March 2010, 11:07 AM	#4
DarkHorse "TRF" Member Join Date: Jul 2009 Real Name: Dave Location: Sydney Watch: 118239 Posts: 413	Most clocks and watches feature a 4 as IIII, it is a tradition and there are many theories as to why this is. A lot of people cite the symmetry aspect. But yes, technically it should be IV. __________________ The world is safe again... but for how long? Current: TAG Heuer 2000 Classic, Kobold Phantom Tactical Chronograph, Rolex Submariner 16610, Breitling Superocean Heritage Chronograph A13320 (Crowe Edition), Rolex Day-Date 118239

11 March 2010, 11:18 AM	#5
Step Down "TRF" Member Join Date: Feb 2010 Location: USA Posts: 5	I think IIII is supposed to balance the dial. the IIII is 180 degrees removed from VIII on the other side of the dial. There is also some historical issue where IV was not used in ancient times but I don't know the story on that. By the way I only own watches with arabic dials. Roman dials don't appeal to me at all. I wonder if others have a single preference Roman or Arabic or do you mix them in your collection? regards steppy

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